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@afanofmanysaints

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Things I got called a heretic for today…. Saying we should help our neighbors.
#GIRL#this keeps happening on instagram#the orthobros are so mad I said the gospel is for poor people 🤣
Here's how you respond:
You're right, the Gospel isn't for the poor. The poor are already inherently saved by virtue of their poverty. Only the rich need salvation.
Let us consider the four beatitudes that Matthew and Luke have in common. The first three are simple, stark, and even laconic. Jesus declares to be blessed those who are poor, those who mourn or weep, and those who go hungry. Their situation, he promises, will be directly reversed—at the end of history and through the action of God. Those who mourn will be comforted by God; those who hunger now will be satisfied by God.
[...]
Jesus did not qualify his promises with any conditions. These three promises, at least explicitly, did not depend, for instance, on anyone's commitment to him. He did not say, 'blessed are the poor who follow me'; nor 'blessed are those followers of mine who weep and mourn now'; nor did he say 'blessed are those followers of mine who are hungry now'. The promises came with no strings attached. The promises were unconditioned by any reference to Jesus himself. They also came without such qualifications as: 'Blessed are the poor who are always faithful to God. Blessed are those who weep now because they suffer for keeping the divine commandments. Blessed are those who remain hungry because they will not kill others to have more food.' The poor, the sorrowing, and the hungry have no claim on God, or at least no strict claim. God's loving mercy will be extended to them, even though they do not deserve, or do not strictly deserve, such gracious help. Some parables carry the same message: for instance, those of the Father's Love (Luke 15:11-32), the Unforgiving Servant (Matthew 18:23-35), and the Pharisee and the Tax Collector (Luke 18:10-14). In their different ways, the prodigal son, the servant, and the tax collector are greatly in need, but they have no right to receive the help that will come their way. Thus the first three beatitudes common to Matthew and Luke focus on people who are not said to be virtuous and deserving. They are simply in need and God will help and vindicate them. They are deprived and destitute, and only God will come to their aid. Jesus assures those in great distress that God intends to bring to an end the present state of things. The good news expressed in these first three beatitudes specifies wonderfully what Jesus means by saying elsewhere that 'the poor are brought the good news' (Matthew 11:5).
Gerald O'Collins, S.J. (Jesus: A Portrait, pages 129, 130-131)
If science is about the world that is, and religion is about the world that ought to be, then religion needs science because we cannot apply God’s will to the world if we do not understand the world. If we try to, the result will be magic or misplaced supernaturalism. We will rely on miracles – and the rabbis ruled, ‘Don’t rely on miracles.’ By the same token, science needs religion, or at the very least, some philosophical understanding of the human condition and our place within the universe, for each fresh item of knowledge and each new accession of power raises the question of how it should be used, and for that we need another way of thinking.
Rabbi Lord Jonathan Sacks zt"l, The Great Partnership: God, Science, and the Search for Meaning p.214
i was reading romans in the NRSV(UE) and noticed that a few of the instances of dikaosyne classically translated as 'righteousness' (and adikia translated as 'unrighteousness' or 'wickedness') are now translated as 'justice'/'injustice - they seem to have gone for a 'social relationships/big picture dikaiosyne is justice, and dikaiosyne as a personal quality is righteousness'.
and l feel like it has made the text more cohesive
Some examples:
"For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and injustice (NIV: wickedness) of those who by their injustice suppress the truth." Romans 1.18.
"They were filled with every kind of injustice (NIV: wickedness), evil, covetousness, malice. Full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, craftiness, they are gossips, slanderers, God-haters, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, rebellious toward parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless." Romans 1.29.
"But if our injustice serves to confirm the justice of God (NIV: 'if our unrighteousness brings out God's righteousness more clearly'), what should we say? That God is unjust to inflict wrath on us? (I speak in a human way.) By no means! For then how could God judge the world?" - Romans 3:5-6 - the NRSV
The impression I get from the NIV, shaped by much evangelical teaching, is that 'righteousness' is an individual quality first and foremost - yes, it affects other people who become victims of it, but the picture painted feels like the problem is that every single individual is unrighteous and does things that are Bad.
Romans 3.5-6, then, seems to suggest that our unrighteousness only serves to highlight just how much more perfect and beautiful and morally spotless God is compared to us, and hence God is justified to inflict wrath because he is so much better than us.
On the other hand, the NRSVUE (and tbf the 3: 5-6 changes are also present in the NRSV) I think instead by using injustice suggests that we have a collective problem. God's wrath is a response to injustice which must be amended, and the vice list of Romans 1.29 is not just a pious killjoy collection of things to avoid but all sins that flow directly from injustice.
Romans 3.5-6 instead seems to be saying 'the fact that God is willing to deal with this injustice via wrath and restore right relationships demonstrates God's justice' - essentially, in the same way that Green Goblin's injustice 'confirms' Spiderman's justice by being his foil and adversary. So Paul seems to be saying 'We see God's justice demonstrated in his response to injustice - it would be stupid then to say God is unjust to judge us. How could he ever fix the world without some kind of judgment' Rather than suggesting that because God is perfectly morally good, he can freely destroy all who are morally impure at will.
i think this also foreshadows Romans 6.1, where Paul asks rhetorically 'shall we keep on sinning, so that grace may abound?' No, because in Romans sin is injustice. Injustice is a broken relationship, whether between individuals or on a societal level, and the effect of grace is to heal that relationship, not paper over it. Continuing to perpetuate injustice in order to make grace abound is like deliberately breaking your arm over and over again for more medicine.
I think this also makes clearer a closer link to the theology of the Old Testament Prophets, for whom social justice was of prime importance and first and foremost concerned with the community of Israel, not individual virtue in itself (although of course, by standing against Israel the Prophets also demonstrated the value of individual virtue).
"Righteousness" comes from the Old English word "rihtwīsnes" which means "justice." The translators of the KJV (and the older translations it borrowed from) used "righteousness" because it meant justice. And then Anglophone Christianity spent the following centuries carefully recontextualizing the word to mean something like "personal virtue" instead.
the first person in the bible to give God a name is hagar (a slave woman) who called him "the one who sees me"

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"As the Crucified, Jesus thus identifies with every victim of torture, incest, or rape; with every peasant caught in the cross fire of the enemy patrols; with every single one of the forty thousand children who die each day of starvation...with every mother or father who cradles the lifeless body of a courageous son or daughter; with every Alzheimer's patient slowly losing the capacity of recognition. In Jesus we see the suffering of God with and in suffering people."
Walter Wink, Engaging the Powers: Discernment and Resistance in a World of Domination
Dear Lord,
PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE. Thank you.
Amen.
I think I’ve been reading too much about early modern Europe because I just heard someone go “of course Christians don’t think the communion wafer is actually the body of Christ, it’s a metaphor” and I said out loud “girl no they started wars about this.”
Which is kind of a pedantic thing to say! because absolutely that’s a benign and perfectly reasonable statement in the year 2026 but for a second I felt like there was an absolutely gobsmacked 17th century Austrian priest watching over my shoulder
A perfectly reasonable statement in the year 2026 if you've never met (or heard of??) a Christian who isn't Protestant I guess????
Heck I think most High Protestants have some sort of doctrine of the Real Presence - Anglicans sure do at least.
This isn't some esoteric historical curiosity, it's a pretty egregious misrepresentation of the majority of modern Christendom
preserving the tag because oooooooooo boyyy it is both correct and important. saying "nobody really believes that" makes it sound -- intentionally or not -- like you think it's a stupid thing to believe and everyone with that sincere belief is either stupid or self-deceptive. so maybe don't be an asshole! if you sincerely think that a piece of theological doctrine is less relevant or less literally interpreted than it used to be in the same faith ... say that instead!!
(source: raised by aggressively ex-catholic atheists and I'm pretty sure I was awful about this as a Youth)
what do christians mean when they say jesus fulfilled the law? whenever i am arguing with people who are trying to proselytize people keep saying this as though the meaning is obvious but it’s not 😭
To my understanding from a class I took last year, it means that the purpose of the law was essentially replaced by Jesus, that is the law is no longer necessary because Jesus fulfills the same purpose
but what to them is the purpose of the law?
and why do they keep citing stuff from the allegedly superseded law? like they do cite "leviticus" when they're being homophobic, and they talk about adam and noach and moshe and all of our people, and they cite our prophets as evidence for jesus? so what's the theological explanation for that?
The purpose of the law, as I remember it, was a stand in until Jesus could come - wherein he had to come at "the right time" to fulfill the "prophecies" (mis translated or cherry picked and d contextualized verses from the Prophets or the writings) so everyone who lived pre-jesus but followed God's laws are "pre-christian" As far as why do they cite the law they think it still informs Christian ethics- they split the law into "ethical" and "ritual", where "ritual" law (such as the sacrifices, kashrut, sperating fabric) are superceded by Jesus, but the "ethical laws" still remain in force. There is a verse where Jesus says he "didn't come to replace the law" that they usually cite there, but "obviously" that doesn't apply to the ritual law.
fulfilling prophecies makes sense! (as in i understand what it means; i don’t actually think he fulfilled them). but i still don’t understand how you’d fulfill a law?
like, you can fulfill a prophecy, a promise, a prediction, an order, a prescription, an expectation… but how do you fulfill a law?
@thedeepbreathbeforetheplunge oh wait no. i didn’t read what you said clearly. if the purpose of the law is to be a stand in for jesus to come, then yeah it makes sense to say it was fulfilled when he came. it’s tautological but linguistically it works.
so since jesus is there to absolve people of sin does that mean that to christians, that’s also the purpose of the law? (that’s what evilwickedme was saying in another reblog)
The way it was explained to me, in my non-denominational/Baptist upbringing, is that God gave the Law to the Israelites as a temporary measure to absolve sins for those who kept the Law and reveal His will to the world before Jesus came. When Jesus came to the world, died, and was resurrected, that established a new covenant that superseded the Law by 1. making it a universal covenant (as opposed to the Law which was primarily between God and the Israelites/their descendants) and 2. giving people direct access to God through the in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit, as opposed to the Levite priesthood intervening on behalf of the Israelites before God in the Tabernacle and the Temple.
And the reason given as to why the Law was a temporary measure is because it was supposed to be impossible for anyone to keep completely, to showcase mankind's need for God's direct intervention. Jesus' death and resurrection made it so that God's grace could make up for the impossible standards of the Law. I don't recall anyone ever explaining why the sacrifices would be mandated then if they weren't effective recompense for breaking the Law, and the explanations for why Christians keep trying to enforce lesser versions of the Law socially and politically never sat right either.

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Saint Bede the Venerable
Doctor of the Church
672/673-735
Feast Day: May 25 (New), May 27 (Trad)
Patronage: English writers, historians, Jarrow, St. Bede college and university
Saint Bede was a Benedictine monk in Britain. He was the greatest scholar, author, and teacher of his time, deeply versed in the sciences and history, and known as the “Father of English History”. As a linguist and translator, he brought the works of the Latin and Greek writings of the early church fathers to the English, which contributed significantly to English Christianity. St. Bede was the first to date events anno domin (AD). He’s called Venerable to acknowledge his wisdom and learning.
Prints, plaques & holy cards available for purchase. (website)
Psalms 46:10 NKJV
Shout out to Acts 2:14-15, the funniest two verses in the Bible. "We're not drunk, it's 9am. Catch us at 9pm tho you know what I'm saying?"
The worm of the Lord
R: Thanks be to God.

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Me to God when I pray because he likes talking to us
the fatal catholic urge to draw mary,,,