Profe đ:
When is the future/hypothetical subjunctive used? What are the common triggers?
This is a very unique topic because to explain it properly I have to touch on multiple things, so bear with me on this it's going to be a whole lot
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Future subjunctive is now considered obsolete so you won't be seeing it outside of historical works [you'll know it because it will be like -ere/-iere; like hablare, comiere, viviere]
I've only seen future subjunctive in historical stuff or extreme legalese like si fuere menester "should it be necessary", literally "were it to be needed"
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All of those functions were given to the imperfect subjunctive, which is now primarily split between past subjunctive and future uses
[this is going to be hard to explain but there used to be different tenses used for imperfect subjunctive (past subjunctive) and future subjunctive - they later all got moved into one tense]
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Imperfect subjunctive now shows up in two cases. First is past tense subjunctive
So say it's quiero que pongas la mesa "I want you to set the table", you then flip that to past tense as querĂa que pusieras la mesa "I wanted you to set the table"
This is the standard for all of Spanish, so if it's a past tense subjunctive, it's imperfect subjunctive with -iera or -ara endings
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The future subjunctive was/is used in hypothetical situations [again, now it's all imperfect subjunctive].
These are "if/then" statements - si fuera rico "if I were rich", si fuera presidente / presidenta "if I were president", or si yo fuera tĂş "if I were you"
The "if" statements are hypothetical, contrary to fact statements and those are imperfect subjunctive now. The "then" statements are done with conditional tense.
Conditional tense is easily recognized; it's primarily infinitives + Ăa endings [hablarĂa, vivirĂa, comerĂa etc.]
Most people see conditional first with me gustarĂa "I would like", or deberĂa "I should (have)" or "I could (have)"
The irregular verbs here still have Ăa endings but they aren't looking like infinitives - these are usually verbs that were -go verbs in present tense [hacer to harĂa, querer to querrĂa, decir to dirĂa, venir to vendrĂa, valer to valdrĂa, salir to saldrĂa... although haber is now habrĂa so it's not only -go verbs]
The good news is that ser, ir, dar, and ver are all regular for once so conditional has fewer irregulars than most tenses.
But anyway, if then statements:
AyudarĂa a mi familia mĂĄs si tuviera mĂĄs dinero. = I would help my family, if I had more money. Si tuviera mĂĄs dinero, ayudarĂa a mi familia mĂĄs. = If I had more money, I would help my family more.
Your "if" and "then" statements can be in any order.
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The grammatical issue you'll see is that when you look up imperfect subjunctive, you'll see two forms
-iera/-ara, and -iese/-ase
Latin America uses all of imperfect subjunctive with -iera/-ara forms
Spain will sometimes use the hypothetical contrary to fact imperfect subjunctive with the -iese/-ase forms.
In other words, all of Spanish will say querĂa que pusieras la mesa "I wanted you to set the table"...
But Latin America will say si fuera rico/a "if I were rich" and Spain might say si fuese rico/a "if I were rich"
Or...
Si yo fuera tĂş, no lo harĂa. = If I were you, I wouldn't do that. Si yo fuese tĂş, no lo harĂa. = If I were you, I wouldn't do that.
They equate to the same thing, just that one is regionally preferred - so if you see the two forms in a conjugation chart, that's why
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This grammatical difference is very similar to English in a lot of ways. The same way we can say "if I was you" which sounds like past tense but can also say "if I were you" which sounds like future
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Originally the two tenses were distinct.
The -ara/-iera forms weren't even subjnctive. They were what you'd call "pluperfect" which is literally "more than past"
Pluperfect today is done with haber in the imperfect tense + a past participle
He llamado. = I have called. [present perfect] HabĂa llamado. = I had called. [pluperfect]
habĂa llamado "I had called" would have probably looked like llamara in older Spanish, where llamara would have been "I had called"
This is because in the older Spanish, haber was more literally "to have" the way tener is used [people would say he dos hijos "I have two children" etc]
This is why in things set in older times, you might see the -ara/-iera endings used as pluperfect
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Today that's largely not the case except for sometimes in journalism
The big example is naciera "was born", which is synonymous with naciĂł "was born" in this case
naciera (from nacer) would have been "had been born" or "was born"
And you will never see it as naciese for "had been born"
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As an example of how things used to look, you can usually check the Bible which sometimes preserves a bit of the older style of how Spanish used to be used:
Empero yo os digo la verdad: Os es necesario que yo vaya: porque si yo no fuese, el Consolador no vendrĂa ĂĄ vosotros; mas si yo fuere, os le enviarĂŠ. Y cuando Êl viniere redargĂźirĂĄ al mundo de pecado, y de justicia, y de juicio..... "Nevertheless I tell you truly: It is necessary for you that I go, because if I were to not go, the Comforter would not come to you, but if I should go, I will send him to you. And once he comes he will reprove the world of sin, and of justice, and of judgement....."
And that is not how Spanish looks or sounds today, mostly
Future subjunctive often comes out like "is to be"... like "when he is come", "when he is to be king", that sort of vibe. Modern Spanish (and English) phrase it differently now but it does have an archaic vibe to it that's very... literary
Even Shakespeare isn't translated this way, which is why you'll see Shakespeare has multiple versions in Spanish with updated modern Spanish versus the Spanish they would have used centuries ago; and some versions are more popular for theater, and some are just easier to understand without the theatrical/literary usages











