Bronze Age to Iron Age - migratory patterns, politicisation of history in Indology
A disclaimer: this post will be mostly about questions, because I myself do not have the answers.
Ever since the 19th century, British colonisation, and European enlightenment era scientific racism, Indian history, and "caste" and regional politics have been dominated by racial polarisation. The reason behind is that some British scholars discovered that Sanskrit, the native language of India, had quite a few similarities with languages like Latin and Greek. This gave them an opportunity to justify their colonial rule; "the British were just establishing their rightful rule because the Europeans had already previously colonised India and given India its high culture". The Europeans at the time could not believe that there were civilisations far more advanced to anything in Europe. Are these narratives true?
It's true that comparative linguistics or philology has found extensive similarities in lexicon and grammar between some Indian languages and some European languages, which cannot be brushed off as mere coincidences. This has given rise to the popularity of the hypothesis that ancient group of people migrated to India from Europe. Let's see how true this supposition is. ļæ¼
First of all let's take a look at the map.
The current scholarly consensus is that the Andronovo culture (which is divided into Alakul-Fedorovo subcultures, wherein Alakul practised cremation almost exclusively and Fedorovo buried their dead in a flexed position), and its close predecessor Sintashta culture are the cultures where the Proto-Indo-Iranian was spoken. So, it was the culture that preceded Vedas, according to this scholarly consensus. This culture is estimated to have existed in cirka 2000 BCE ā 1150 BCE.
The BMAC, which was situated south to the area where the Andronovo culture existed, refers to the BactriaāMargiana Archaeological Complex. It was a major Middle Bronze Age civilization that flourished in modern-day Eastern Turkmenistan, northern Afghanistan, southern Uzbekistan, and Western Tajikistan between 2300 and 1700 BCE. It was contemporary with the late phases of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC, c. 3300ā1300 BCE). Archaeologists have found IVC seals, beads, and ivory artefacts at BMAC sites, and even some IVC outposts like Shortughai in the banks of Amu Darya in modern-day northern Afghanistan. Both cultures used similar stamp seals, had plumbing and irrigation systems, and metalwork techniques, pointing to a robust cultural exchange. Both the BMAC and IVC were "non-Indo-European". They both spoke an unknown language. Linguists believe that both BMAC and IVC languages may have been an isolated language family on their own, or they may have been faintly related to each other. Scholars are hotly debating whether the IVC language belonged to the Dravidian, Elamite or "Elamo-Dravidian" family. As the IVC script hasn't yet been deciphered, it is impossible to tell. The BMAC language is unknown because they left no written records. Archaeogenetic studies (such as the landmark Narasimhan et al. 2019 study on South and Central Asian populations) show that the core BMAC population was primarily descended from Iranian agriculturalists and Anatolian farmers, characterised by high proportions of Y-DNA haplogroup J and smaller occurrences of haplogroup L (marked by L-M20). The core IVC populations were primarily associated with Y-DNA haplogroups L-M20 and R2a. The reason both civilizations possessed variations of haplogroup L-M20 is that both populations shared a heavy maternal and autosomal foundation rooted in early Iranian/Zagrosian Neolithic herders and early West Asian farmers.ļæ¼Both BMAC and IVC people lacked the haplogroup R1a that characterises Indo-European populations.
What was the religion of the BMAC and IVC peoples? Excavations in the BMAC sites have revealed fire altars, communal ritual hearths, water basins, and evidence of animal sacrifice. Archaeologist Viktor Sarianidi, who discovered the site, found what appears to be "the boiler for the ritual drink soma, which is mentioned in the Rigveda and also in the Avesta as haoma". Sarianidi says he also found dishes with traces of cannabis, poppy and ephedra. According to him, this discovery strengthens the theory that these were the ingredients of soma/haoma. Due to the presence of fire altars, water basins, and soma/haoma making tools, some scholars believe the BMAC harbored proto-Zoroastrian practices that later influenced the Persian religion. Archaeologists have discovered some of the most prolific religious sites and objects from the IVC. Ritual wells, fire altars, lingam and yoni statues, Pashupati seal possibly depicting "proto-Shiva", statues in different (proto?)-yogic positions, and evidences of animal sacrifice have been found in IVC. However, no direct chemical evidence of Soma, cannabis, poppy, or ephedra have been found in the IVC sites, nor have any explicitly confirmed Soma-making tools been discovered there. Some scholars have argued that certain IVC artefacts represent the tools described in Vedic texts, for example, linguist Asko Parpola and other scholars have argued that the "unicorn brazier" - seal is actually a stylized sacred filter apparatus used to drop, strain, and purify a ritual plant drink, closely matching descriptions of the Soma preparation process outlined in the Rigveda, however it is just a theory, and a far-fetched one at that. Please keep these details in mind because we will come back to this later on.
What happened to the BMAC and IVC peoples?ļæ¼Around 1700ā1500 BCE, the BMAC experienced a decline, likely due to a combination of climate-induced droughts and shifting river beds. Coincidentally, at this time, the semi-nomadic, Indo-Iranian speaking Andronovo people were moving south. The Indo-European steppe ancestry only begins appearing in the archaeological record at BMAC sites toward the very end of its urban phase, around in 2100ā1700 BCE. When the Andronovo people settled alongside the BMAC, they adopted roughly 300 loanwords from the BMAC language into Proto-Indo-Iranian, according to scholars. These borrowed words survived into ancient Sanskrit and Avestan. The reason why scholars think that these specific words were adopted by the Andronovo people is because these terms don't exist in other Indo-European languages, and because these were presumably objects that the Andronovo people "couldn't have encountered before their arrival at BMAC". For example, scholars have theories that the words for brick, canal, house, plough, and seed were borrowed by the Andronovo people because that is, presumably, the first time they encountered permanent brick houses, canals, and farming. Scholars also think that the words for camel, mustard, hemp, and words for priestly functions (rishi), ritual drinks (soma/haoma), and even the names of deities like Indra were absorbed into Indo-European culture from the BMAC (again, please remember this detail). The Andronovo people mixed with the BMAC people, and the Proto-Indo-Iranian language supplanted the BMAC language. This is why the modern day southern Central Asian population has the genetic markers of the BMAC people as well as the Andronovo people. Please keep this detail in mind.
Do the people in the Indian subcontinent possess the BMAC genetic markers in their genome? Major genome studies show that populations in the Indian subcontinent do not possess BMAC genetic ancestry in significant or distinct amounts. According to landmark archaeogenetic papers, such as Narasimhan et al. (2019) published by the David Reich Lab at Harvard University, a direct reciprocal north-to-south genetic spread from the BMAC core population into South Asia is "statistically undetectable". If the Proto-Indo-Iranian steppe people with the haplogroup R1a mixed with the BMAC on their way south, why do modern Indian Subcontinent people have R1a but virtually zero BMAC genetic markers? Scholars say that it is due to a phenomenon known as the "Indus Periphery Bypass". Apparently, the Proto-Indo-Iranian people did not advance like a single solid wall of people moving straight through the BMAC capital cities. Instead, they migrated in multiple, fractured waves. Some Proto-Indo-Iranian groups utilised the "Inner Asian Mountain Corridor", a route hugging the Tian Shan and Pamir mountain ranges. This path allowed them to move from the Kazakh steppe directly down into the Hindu Kush and the Swat Valley. By taking this eastern, mountainous route, these specific migrants completely bypassed the BMAC, thus not mixing with the BMAC people. For the proto-Indo-Iranian groups that did pass through BMAC territory, "archaeology shows they lived in separate, distinct encampments on the fringes of BMAC cities rather than integrating into them. While they exchanged ideas, technologies, and words (which is why Proto-Indo-Iranians adopted BMAC terms for farming and religion), they maintained strict social or cultural barriers against intermarriage. Because the core BMAC population was urban and sedentary, and the Proto-Indo-Iranian people were mobile pastoralists, their lifestyles kept them genetically segregated". Huh?? When did the BMAC and Andronovo people mix then if the central Asian population shows that they're descended from the people of this ancient mix?
The timing of these Andronovo migrations coincided with climate change around in 1900ā1700 BCE. The BMAC cities dried up and collapsed, but its people did not migrate south into India; they largely scattered westward into Iran or integrated into other local Central Asian groups, which is why modern Tajiks and Afghans carry BMAC DNA, but "South Asians" do not. At the same time, the IVC was also de-urbanising due to the drying up of the Ghaggar-Hakra river systems (which has been theorised to be Saraswati of the Rigveda). As the IVC population migrated out of their grand cities, they ran into the incoming Proto-Indo-Iranian people. This strict barrier to intermarriage broke down because they mixed heavily with the IVC population. Doesn't this sound a little contradictory and a bit too convenient? So let me get this straight: Proto-Indo-Iranian people moved southwards in multiple streams, and the stream that bypassed the urban settlements of BMAC and did not mix with the BMAC people, thus not picking up the genetic markers of the BMAC people, they were the ones who settled in the Indian subcontinent, but also some of the core Rigvedic religious terminology for objects and entities like Soma, Rishi, Indra, that apparently came from BMAC and was borrowed by those Proto-Indo-Iranians who had settled in BMAC, those Proto-Indo-Iranian settlers never moved southwards which we know because there is no significant BMAC genetic component in Indian subcontinent population. How come the Indian Hindu Rigveda have those words then?
Below is an image of the sacred rivers in the Zend Avesta. For any Hindu, this looks familiar. The oldest parts of the Rigveda are linguistically more archaic according to scholars. Most mainstream philologists date these hymns to roughly "1500ā1200 BCE". Some interdisciplinary models tie geographical features to an even earlier timeline.
The oldest section of the Avesta consists of the Gathas (sacred hymns composed directly by Zarathustra). They are written in Old Avestan, a sister language to Vedic Sanskrit. Linguists date the Gathas to roughly 1200ā1000 BCE. The direct cousin relationship between the two texts is proven by systematic sound shifts. In almost every case, the Vedic Sanskrit "S" sound evolved into the Avestan "H" sound, a shift that historical linguists know typically happens later in a language's timeline. The sections of the Zend Avesta that detail geography, such as the rivers and lands of the Vendidad and the Yashts, belong to the more recent layers of Avesta. These were composed much later, estimated between 1000 BCE and 600 BCE. By the time these sections were formulated, the Rigveda had already been complete for centuries. How come the core religious concepts of the Rigveda, like Soma, come from BMAC then if the Indian Hindu Rigveda is more archaic than Persian Iranian Zend Avesta?
There's a massive friction between genetics and linguistics. It is highly contradictory that a migrant group could remain genetically isolated from a major urban civilization, yet intimately absorb its vocabulary, religion, and culture, and then carry it thousands of kilometres to the south to India. Scholars explain this phenomenon with something called "cultural transmission without genetic replacement". The Proto-Indo-Iranian people lived in mobile encampments on the fringes of the BMAC oases from c. 2100 BCE - 1700 BCE until collapse of BMAC. They presumably traded cattle and metals for BMAC agricultural goods, worked as mercenaries or seasonal laborers for BMAC people. They did not need to intermarry or integrate into BMAC cities to learn the local words for camel, brick, or priest. Scholars use modern English as an example; English has plethora of loanwords from Arabic (algebra, alcohol, safari), Nahuatl (chocolate, tomato, avocado), and Hindi (shampoo, bungalow, jungle). Yet, the native English carry virtually 0% Arabic, Native American, or "South Asian" DNA. Fair enough. Core Indian Hindu sacred religious terminology could have been borrowed from BMAC by living in the fringes for 400 years, yet no memory of these people remain in the Vedic hymns.
Another explanation scholars give is that while BMAC genes are not found in massive, dominant quantities across the entire "South Asian" population, "geneticists have detected a tiny, faint pulse of Turanian/BMAC-like ancestry in certain South Asian groups, particularly in the Northwest". That could be the result of later migrations too, as Sakas and Hunas too settled in India, embraced Hinduism and assimilated. The scholars, however, argue that the presence of this "Turanian/BMAC-like ancestry" is due to those Proto-Indo-Iranians mixing with some BMAC people, and the reason why it is so heavily diluted is due to the population size of the IVC. Apparently when the Proto-Indo-Iranian migrants, the ones who had absorbed the BMAC vocabulary, finally entered India, they mixed with millions of IVC people, so whatever tiny fraction of BMAC DNA some of those Proto-Indo-Iranian individuals carried was diluted down to nearly nothing over generations. All while both the BMAC and the IVC language presumably went extinct (except for a few loanwords?) and the Proto-Indo-Iranian language went onto developing into the dominant elite tongue (Vedic Sanskrit), but somehow the core Indian Hindu Vedic sacred religious terminology is from this completely different civilisation which these Proto-Indo-Iranians were never a part of. Okay...
The scholars say that there were two primary waves of migration of the Proto-Indo-Iranians (Andronovo people), the Western Wave pushed directly into the BMAC, mixed heavily with them, and stayed in Central Asia. Their descendants became the ancient Bactrians and Sogdians, and now modern Central Asians, who have high BMAC ancestry. The Eastern Wave moved down through the mountains of modern Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan directly into the Swat Valley. They had far less physical contact with the Western BMAC oases, but they spoke the same Proto-Indo-Iranian language as their western cousins. Scholars say that the "BMAC loanwords had already spread through the entire Proto-Indo-Iranian language network before they ever crossed into India". How convenient!
The haplogroup associated with Indo-European peoples is the R1a.
The R2a (R-M124) is widely considered by population geneticists to be a core paternal lineage of the IVC.
R1a and R2a both belong to the macro-haplogroup R (M207). They split roughly 25,000 ago, somewhere in Central Asia or the West Asian plateau, a man was born with a specific mutation that defined haplogroup R. His immediate descendants split into two primary sons: R1 (the father of R1a and R1b) and R2 (the father of R2a).
The R2a migrated to the Indian subcontinent while R1a remained in Eastern Europe / Central Asia and R1b remained in Caucasia /near east.
A branch of R1b migrated to Central Africa, settled there, married the local people and assimilated. A branch of R1b migrated to Western Europe and this lineage dominates Western Europe.
Eminent Lithuanian archaeologist Marija Gimbutas identified the Yamnaya culture with the late Proto-Indo-Europeans in her Kurgan hypothesis. The Western scholarly consensus is that the Pontic-Caspian steppe is considered "the strongest candidate" for the "Urheimat" (original homeland) of the Proto-Indo-European language, which suggests that the "Yamnaya culture may be the homeland of the Indo-European languages".
Archaeological genetics reveal that Yamnaya male samples belong to the haplogroup R1b, specifically the R1b-Z2103 (predominant in the east) and R1b-L23 lineages.
R1a, which was prevalent in the Corded Ware culture, is "largely responsible for the spread of Indo-Iranian and Slavic languages in Eastern Europe and Central Asia".
The parent haplogroup of the Indian lineage is R1a-Z93. This lineage evolved from "older European" lineages (R1a-Z282 and R1a-M417). The R1a-Z93 branch became a dominant lineage among the "chariot-riding communities".
The "definitive European" branch of R1a is R1a-Z282. Eastern Slavs, Balto-Slavs and Nordics have different mutations.
Can you see the disparity here? If Yamnaya culture is the original homeland of the "Proto-Indo-Europeans", how come India doesn't have R1b? Let's assume that the Corded Ware people moved to Sintashta in the middle of Russia.
Scholars say that a branch of the Corded Ware culture moved out of Central Europe and pushed deep into the forest zones of Russia, creating the Fatyanovo culture. By 2500 BCE, the descendants of the Fatyanovo culture shifted further south and east into the forest-steppe zone, evolving into the Abashevo culture. The Abashevo people became master metallurgists, exploiting major copper deposits in the Urals. Around 2100 BCE, these Abashevo metalworkers fully emerged onto the northern Eurasian steppe. There, they encountered and absorbed the Poltavka culture, a local group of pastoralists who were "direct genetic descendants of the original Yamnaya culture". They together created the Sintashta culture. The Sintashta people built heavily fortified settlements, advanced bronze weaponry, and crucially invented the spoked-wheel war chariot to control the landscape. By the time the Sintashta culture was established, the Proto-Indo-Iranians possessed the military technology needed for their eventual explosive expansions into Central Asia, Iran, and India.
But why did the Corded Ware people move to Russia? At the time every climate model says that central Europe had much more favourable weather conditions than Russia had. Every time someone proposes that perhaps people moved out of India (the "Out of India" - theory or the OIT) everyone debunks it by saying that why would anyone move out of fertile India with favourable weather conditions to cold Europe? Meanwhile there is an entire scholarly consensus in the West that people move from warm central Europe to cold Russia. They explain it by saying that Russia had more metal after which the people migrated for. Can't this same excuse be used for the OIT? Anyway, since the Sintashta people were a mix of the Poltavka descendants of the Yamnaya and the Corded Ware people, why doesn't the R1b show up in India? Apparently because the Corded Ware people became the elite and their patriarchal system "phased out" the male Y-DNA of the Poltavka people. How convenient.
Because this post will be too long if I have more questions I will end it here. The reason why we must question is because the Western narrative under the garb of "scholarly consensus" gets passed as the truth while any narrative from India gets called "Hindutva nationalist pseudo-science". Isn't it curious though, that art like this below ā¬ļø dominates the Western consciousness, and they sell like hot cakes?