Can we get a balding fetish to enter the zeitgeist
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Can we get a balding fetish to enter the zeitgeist

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A lot of the stuff around flirting i see around is like "damn men suck at picking up hints when women flirt with them" "damn lesbian women suck at picking up hints when women flirt with them" "damn gay men suck at picking up hints when men flirt with them". It makes me get the impression (though I don't strongly believe in it, *) that everyone is better at thinking that they understand subtle hints/body language than they are at actually picking up stuff. *It's probably just bias soup on how these sentiments are shared and bias soup on my receiving end. (plus, in any type of interaction like this that goes against the patriarchal norm (aka all of the ones i mentioned), the modes of interaction where you expect there to be flirting are less well defined/ well known, since they don't have as strong of a cultural basis, and for gay stuff it's easy to find yourself in a spot where you have to do investigative work to figure out if someone is gay before you figure out if they're into you)
mfs are an anagram of Cheese-Burger
abstract algebra people i need help. looking for a ring with the following properties:
only one zero divisor (that being 0 itself, of course)
commutative
not a field
no irreducible elements
can be completely generated from a finite subset by addition, subtraction, and division (division is a partial function only defined when the result is an element of the ring)
Ok i have an idea that might work, take the monoid (under the sum (also identityless)) of all the integer combinations of 1 and sqrt(2) which are strictly positive, and take the ring of rational-coefficient polynomials in the variables x_q, where q is an element of the aforementioned monoid. Impose that the multiplication of x_q and x_q' equals x_{q+q'} Take the localization at the maximal ideal generated by all x_k, aka take the ring of fractions where the denominator must have a non-zero constant term. This should be a domain (lookin at the biggest term of each product), any term with non zero constant coefficient is a unit, so it doesn't affect irreducibility, for any term with 0 constant coefficient there exists an x_q with q lower than any of those appearing in the rest of the term, hence you can divide by it, despite it not being a unit, hence it is not irreducible. It should be generated by 1,x_1,x_sqrt(2), since you can multiply x_q and x_q' by doing (x_q / (1/(1+x_q')) - x_q) (also not a field cuz it still has a maximal ideal)
i'll check this more thoroughly over the following hour but i thought i'd drop the idea just to get the discussion going
ok so rational coefficient polynomials whose exponents can be any positive element of Z[sqrt(2)]
are you sure 1/(1+x_q') is an element? I'm pretty sure that'd be an infinitely long polynomial
nope the final ring is the ring of fractions of said ring, but you only quotient by elements with a non zero constant term, again the localization at the maximal ideal generated by all x_q
abstract algebra people i need help. looking for a ring with the following properties:
only one zero divisor (that being 0 itself, of course)
commutative
not a field
no irreducible elements
can be completely generated from a finite subset by addition, subtraction, and division (division is a partial function only defined when the result is an element of the ring)
Ok i have an idea that might work, take the monoid (under the sum (also identityless)) of all the integer combinations of 1 and sqrt(2) which are strictly positive, and take the ring of rational-coefficient polynomials in the variables x_q, where q is an element of the aforementioned monoid. Impose that the multiplication of x_q and x_q' equals x_{q+q'} Take the localization at the maximal ideal generated by all x_k, aka take the ring of fractions where the denominator must have a non-zero constant term. This should be a domain (lookin at the biggest term of each product), any term with non zero constant coefficient is a unit, so it doesn't affect irreducibility, for any term with 0 constant coefficient there exists an x_q with q lower than any of those appearing in the rest of the term, hence you can divide by it, despite it not being a unit, hence it is not irreducible. It should be generated by 1,x_1,x_sqrt(2), since you can multiply x_q and x_q' by doing (x_q / (1/(1+x_q')) - x_q) (also not a field cuz it still has a maximal ideal)
i'll check this more thoroughly over the following hour but i thought i'd drop the idea just to get the discussion going

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going insane im using bayes' theorem to estimate the likelihood of someone being gay & into me given their behaviour towards me but i'm beginning to need more standardized data
this email could have been a battle to the death
why does the amount of linear algebra any graduate math course expects you to know greatly exceed the amount of linear algebra any math course will ever teach you
This is true. If there's one thing you need to know it's linear algebra.
Here's a fun linear algebra problem to test your skills!
For which n can you find a set of n nxn matrices, A_1, ..., A_n, such that for all n dimensional vectors x, the set A_1 x, ..., A_n x is linearly independent?
I’d really like to see the answer to this
don't you have a trivial counterexample where x is the zero vector?
how about for all nonzero n dimensional vectors x
yeah that's what i'm working through now - i think it only works for n = 1. otherwise you always can find some vector x that forms a linearly dependent set. having trouble formalizing it tho, several years since i've written a linalg proof.
all A_n have to be invertible because ker{A_n} needs to be trivial. In the n=2 case that means we need to find
A x = k B x
(B^-1)A x = k x
Which reduces to whether (B^-1)A has at least one eigenvalue. Taking [[0, 1], [-1, 0]], the answer is yes in C but no in R.
so e.g. a solution for real x for n=2 is {identity, [[0, -1], [1, 0]]}, right.
(conceptually, because your resulting system of eqns is: x1 = k x2, x2 = -k x1, right.)
In general, if some matrix isn't invertible then we also get a trivial solution.
If we're working over any algebraically closed field that works for all n.
If A_1 and A_2 are invertible, we can find an eigenvalue k of (A_1^-1)A_2, which gives us a solution.
Consider now the case R^n for odd n>1. The characteristic polynomial of (A_1^-1)A_2 is of degree n, so it has a real root and a real eigenvalue. The case for even n>2 uhh idk.
this shouuuld just be asking what n dimensional subspaces of the space of nxn matrices intersect trivially the hypersurface det(X)=0, for complex matrices it should like probably basically always do that (except for boring dimensions) , so rip, for odd dimensions and for matrices over R, the matrices X and -X will both be in a given n dimensional subspace, and taking a continuous path from X to -X, not crossing 0, since det(X)=-det(-X), eventually you'll end up w a matrix in your subspace w 0 determinant so no odds. Some candidates could be the dimensions 2^n, by starting in the 2x2 case w kaiasky's example and iteratively taking a matrix M in our choise of 2^n matrices and making the bigger matrices [M 0] [0 M] and [0 M][-M 0]. I suspect the fact that this would create a map from R^n x R^n->R^n which restricts to an isomorphism in {x}xR^n and in R^n x{x} is enough through alg topology magic to say the dimension should be 2^n, but i'll check tmrw i desperately need sleep rn
ok like you can't expand to 2^n like i thought, unfortunately if you take the determinant you get a polynomial on n variables which is greater *or equal* to zero and it indeed does "or equal" 0 at times. The last thingy should work, given how you get a map from P^n-1 x P^n-1 to P^n-1, you look at the cohomology rings over Z/2Z and you get that n has to be a power of two so that's nice. for n=4 a 4x4 matrix representation of the quaternions should work instead of my construction (wikipedia has one which seems to work) if the 8 case can be solved somehow through octonions it'd be great, not sure how since non associative algebras can't be really like, represented w real matrices. I've seen ppl mention k-theory, which i do not know, but regardless it'd be nice if it was possible to somehow get a division algebra from the existence of those n-matrices, so that the result could be at least come from a more well known result. Still gotta think how to get a n=8 solution to work if there is one, or how to quotient stuff the right way to get another cool topological map.
why don't the octonions give you the solution? representing multiplication by an octonion as a real matrix the obvious way should just work since you don't need associativity, just distributivity and to be able to freely commute reals (which you have), right?
oh shee ye i think you're right, as long as it's a division algebra it works fine, in fact, maybe the map R^n xR^n into R^n can just make R^n into a non associative division algebra directly? It's non associative in general, it would be a division algebra by hypothesis tho i think maybe possibly idk
Oh ye i think this should work, checking the axioms for an algebra is obvious, to show divisibility we need to solve uniquely a=b x for any non null a and b, but this is like ezy because the map {b}xR^n->R^n is an isomorphism because b as a matrix has determinant 0, so there is exactly one element x which works, and the other way round works as well cuz R^n x{ b}->R^n is also an isomorphism, since no matrix sends b to 0. (To reiterate better, i'm identifying the span of the n matrices assumed to exist w the first copy of R^n, while the 2nd copy of R^n is just the set of vectors they act upon, so i get a map R^nxR^n->R^n by applying a matrix on the left to an element on the right) So this problem is exactly asking for what n there is an n-dimensional division algebra over R, so the answer do be 1,2,4,8 in virtue of a well known result (albeit hard to prove)
also for finite fields there's a similar set of matrices for all n, since for a field of cardinality p^k you can just see the field of cardinality p^(k*n) as a vector space over our original field, which gives us a division algebra so it gives us the solution
why does the amount of linear algebra any graduate math course expects you to know greatly exceed the amount of linear algebra any math course will ever teach you
This is true. If there's one thing you need to know it's linear algebra.
Here's a fun linear algebra problem to test your skills!
For which n can you find a set of n nxn matrices, A_1, ..., A_n, such that for all n dimensional vectors x, the set A_1 x, ..., A_n x is linearly independent?
I’d really like to see the answer to this
don't you have a trivial counterexample where x is the zero vector?
how about for all nonzero n dimensional vectors x
yeah that's what i'm working through now - i think it only works for n = 1. otherwise you always can find some vector x that forms a linearly dependent set. having trouble formalizing it tho, several years since i've written a linalg proof.
all A_n have to be invertible because ker{A_n} needs to be trivial. In the n=2 case that means we need to find
A x = k B x
(B^-1)A x = k x
Which reduces to whether (B^-1)A has at least one eigenvalue. Taking [[0, 1], [-1, 0]], the answer is yes in C but no in R.
so e.g. a solution for real x for n=2 is {identity, [[0, -1], [1, 0]]}, right.
(conceptually, because your resulting system of eqns is: x1 = k x2, x2 = -k x1, right.)
In general, if some matrix isn't invertible then we also get a trivial solution.
If we're working over any algebraically closed field that works for all n.
If A_1 and A_2 are invertible, we can find an eigenvalue k of (A_1^-1)A_2, which gives us a solution.
Consider now the case R^n for odd n>1. The characteristic polynomial of (A_1^-1)A_2 is of degree n, so it has a real root and a real eigenvalue. The case for even n>2 uhh idk.
this shouuuld just be asking what n dimensional subspaces of the space of nxn matrices intersect trivially the hypersurface det(X)=0, for complex matrices it should like probably basically always do that (except for boring dimensions) , so rip, for odd dimensions and for matrices over R, the matrices X and -X will both be in a given n dimensional subspace, and taking a continuous path from X to -X, not crossing 0, since det(X)=-det(-X), eventually you'll end up w a matrix in your subspace w 0 determinant so no odds. Some candidates could be the dimensions 2^n, by starting in the 2x2 case w kaiasky's example and iteratively taking a matrix M in our choise of 2^n matrices and making the bigger matrices [M 0] [0 M] and [0 M][-M 0]. I suspect the fact that this would create a map from R^n x R^n->R^n which restricts to an isomorphism in {x}xR^n and in R^n x{x} is enough through alg topology magic to say the dimension should be 2^n, but i'll check tmrw i desperately need sleep rn
ok like you can't expand to 2^n like i thought, unfortunately if you take the determinant you get a polynomial on n variables which is greater *or equal* to zero and it indeed does "or equal" 0 at times. The last thingy should work, given how you get a map from P^n-1 x P^n-1 to P^n-1, you look at the cohomology rings over Z/2Z and you get that n has to be a power of two so that's nice. for n=4 a 4x4 matrix representation of the quaternions should work instead of my construction (wikipedia has one which seems to work) if the 8 case can be solved somehow through octonions it'd be great, not sure how since non associative algebras can't be really like, represented w real matrices. I've seen ppl mention k-theory, which i do not know, but regardless it'd be nice if it was possible to somehow get a division algebra from the existence of those n-matrices, so that the result could be at least come from a more well known result. Still gotta think how to get a n=8 solution to work if there is one, or how to quotient stuff the right way to get another cool topological map.
why don't the octonions give you the solution? representing multiplication by an octonion as a real matrix the obvious way should just work since you don't need associativity, just distributivity and to be able to freely commute reals (which you have), right?
oh shee ye i think you're right, as long as it's a division algebra it works fine, in fact, maybe the map R^n xR^n into R^n can just make R^n into a non associative division algebra directly? It's non associative in general, it would be a division algebra by hypothesis tho i think maybe possibly idk
Oh ye i think this should work, checking the axioms for an algebra is obvious, to show divisibility we need to solve uniquely a=b x for any non null a and b, but this is like ezy because the map {b}xR^n->R^n is an isomorphism because b as a matrix has determinant 0, so there is exactly one element x which works, and the other way round works as well cuz R^n x{ b}->R^n is also an isomorphism, since no matrix sends b to 0. (To reiterate better, i'm identifying the span of the n matrices assumed to exist w the first copy of R^n, while the 2nd copy of R^n is just the set of vectors they act upon, so i get a map R^nxR^n->R^n by applying a matrix on the left to an element on the right) So this problem is exactly asking for what n there is an n-dimensional division algebra over R, so the answer do be 1,2,4,8 in virtue of a well known result (albeit hard to prove)
why does the amount of linear algebra any graduate math course expects you to know greatly exceed the amount of linear algebra any math course will ever teach you
This is true. If there's one thing you need to know it's linear algebra.
Here's a fun linear algebra problem to test your skills!
For which n can you find a set of n nxn matrices, A_1, ..., A_n, such that for all n dimensional vectors x, the set A_1 x, ..., A_n x is linearly independent?
I’d really like to see the answer to this
don't you have a trivial counterexample where x is the zero vector?
how about for all nonzero n dimensional vectors x
yeah that's what i'm working through now - i think it only works for n = 1. otherwise you always can find some vector x that forms a linearly dependent set. having trouble formalizing it tho, several years since i've written a linalg proof.
all A_n have to be invertible because ker{A_n} needs to be trivial. In the n=2 case that means we need to find
A x = k B x
(B^-1)A x = k x
Which reduces to whether (B^-1)A has at least one eigenvalue. Taking [[0, 1], [-1, 0]], the answer is yes in C but no in R.
so e.g. a solution for real x for n=2 is {identity, [[0, -1], [1, 0]]}, right.
(conceptually, because your resulting system of eqns is: x1 = k x2, x2 = -k x1, right.)
In general, if some matrix isn't invertible then we also get a trivial solution.
If we're working over any algebraically closed field that works for all n.
If A_1 and A_2 are invertible, we can find an eigenvalue k of (A_1^-1)A_2, which gives us a solution.
Consider now the case R^n for odd n>1. The characteristic polynomial of (A_1^-1)A_2 is of degree n, so it has a real root and a real eigenvalue. The case for even n>2 uhh idk.
this shouuuld just be asking what n dimensional subspaces of the space of nxn matrices intersect trivially the hypersurface det(X)=0, for complex matrices it should like probably basically always do that (except for boring dimensions) , so rip, for odd dimensions and for matrices over R, the matrices X and -X will both be in a given n dimensional subspace, and taking a continuous path from X to -X, not crossing 0, since det(X)=-det(-X), eventually you'll end up w a matrix in your subspace w 0 determinant so no odds. Some candidates could be the dimensions 2^n, by starting in the 2x2 case w kaiasky's example and iteratively taking a matrix M in our choise of 2^n matrices and making the bigger matrices [M 0] [0 M] and [0 M][-M 0]. I suspect the fact that this would create a map from R^n x R^n->R^n which restricts to an isomorphism in {x}xR^n and in R^n x{x} is enough through alg topology magic to say the dimension should be 2^n, but i'll check tmrw i desperately need sleep rn
ok like you can't expand to 2^n like i thought, unfortunately if you take the determinant you get a polynomial on n variables which is greater *or equal* to zero and it indeed does "or equal" 0 at times. The last thingy should work, given how you get a map from P^n-1 x P^n-1 to P^n-1, you look at the cohomology rings over Z/2Z and you get that n has to be a power of two so that's nice. for n=4 a 4x4 matrix representation of the quaternions should work instead of my construction (wikipedia has one which seems to work) if the 8 case can be solved somehow through octonions it'd be great, not sure how since non associative algebras can't be really like, represented w real matrices. I've seen ppl mention k-theory, which i do not know, but regardless it'd be nice if it was possible to somehow get a division algebra from the existence of those n-matrices, so that the result could be at least come from a more well known result. Still gotta think how to get a n=8 solution to work if there is one, or how to quotient stuff the right way to get another cool topological map.
why don't the octonions give you the solution? representing multiplication by an octonion as a real matrix the obvious way should just work since you don't need associativity, just distributivity and to be able to freely commute reals (which you have), right?
oh shee ye i think you're right, as long as it's a division algebra it works fine, in fact, maybe the map R^n xR^n into R^n can just make R^n into a non associative division algebra directly? It's non associative in general, it would be a division algebra by hypothesis tho i think maybe possibly idk

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Free to watch • No registration required • HD streaming
why does the amount of linear algebra any graduate math course expects you to know greatly exceed the amount of linear algebra any math course will ever teach you
This is true. If there's one thing you need to know it's linear algebra.
Here's a fun linear algebra problem to test your skills!
For which n can you find a set of n nxn matrices, A_1, ..., A_n, such that for all n dimensional vectors x, the set A_1 x, ..., A_n x is linearly independent?
I’d really like to see the answer to this
don't you have a trivial counterexample where x is the zero vector?
how about for all nonzero n dimensional vectors x
yeah that's what i'm working through now - i think it only works for n = 1. otherwise you always can find some vector x that forms a linearly dependent set. having trouble formalizing it tho, several years since i've written a linalg proof.
all A_n have to be invertible because ker{A_n} needs to be trivial. In the n=2 case that means we need to find
A x = k B x
(B^-1)A x = k x
Which reduces to whether (B^-1)A has at least one eigenvalue. Taking [[0, 1], [-1, 0]], the answer is yes in C but no in R.
so e.g. a solution for real x for n=2 is {identity, [[0, -1], [1, 0]]}, right.
(conceptually, because your resulting system of eqns is: x1 = k x2, x2 = -k x1, right.)
In general, if some matrix isn't invertible then we also get a trivial solution.
If we're working over any algebraically closed field that works for all n.
If A_1 and A_2 are invertible, we can find an eigenvalue k of (A_1^-1)A_2, which gives us a solution.
Consider now the case R^n for odd n>1. The characteristic polynomial of (A_1^-1)A_2 is of degree n, so it has a real root and a real eigenvalue. The case for even n>2 uhh idk.
this shouuuld just be asking what n dimensional subspaces of the space of nxn matrices intersect trivially the hypersurface det(X)=0, for complex matrices it should like probably basically always do that (except for boring dimensions) , so rip, for odd dimensions and for matrices over R, the matrices X and -X will both be in a given n dimensional subspace, and taking a continuous path from X to -X, not crossing 0, since det(X)=-det(-X), eventually you'll end up w a matrix in your subspace w 0 determinant so no odds. Some candidates could be the dimensions 2^n, by starting in the 2x2 case w kaiasky's example and iteratively taking a matrix M in our choise of 2^n matrices and making the bigger matrices [M 0] [0 M] and [0 M][-M 0]. I suspect the fact that this would create a map from R^n x R^n->R^n which restricts to an isomorphism in {x}xR^n and in R^n x{x} is enough through alg topology magic to say the dimension should be 2^n, but i'll check tmrw i desperately need sleep rn
ok like you can't expand to 2^n like i thought, unfortunately if you take the determinant you get a polynomial on n variables which is greater *or equal* to zero and it indeed does "or equal" 0 at times. The last thingy should work, given how you get a map from P^n-1 x P^n-1 to P^n-1, you look at the cohomology rings over Z/2Z and you get that n has to be a power of two so that's nice. for n=4 a 4x4 matrix representation of the quaternions should work instead of my construction (wikipedia has one which seems to work) if the 8 case can be solved somehow through octonions it'd be great, not sure how since non associative algebras can't be really like, represented w real matrices. I've seen ppl mention k-theory, which i do not know, but regardless it'd be nice if it was possible to somehow get a division algebra from the existence of those n-matrices, so that the result could be at least come from a more well known result. Still gotta think how to get a n=8 solution to work if there is one, or how to quotient stuff the right way to get another cool topological map.
why does the amount of linear algebra any graduate math course expects you to know greatly exceed the amount of linear algebra any math course will ever teach you
This is true. If there's one thing you need to know it's linear algebra.
Here's a fun linear algebra problem to test your skills!
For which n can you find a set of n nxn matrices, A_1, ..., A_n, such that for all n dimensional vectors x, the set A_1 x, ..., A_n x is linearly independent?
I’d really like to see the answer to this
don't you have a trivial counterexample where x is the zero vector?
how about for all nonzero n dimensional vectors x
yeah that's what i'm working through now - i think it only works for n = 1. otherwise you always can find some vector x that forms a linearly dependent set. having trouble formalizing it tho, several years since i've written a linalg proof.
all A_n have to be invertible because ker{A_n} needs to be trivial. In the n=2 case that means we need to find
A x = k B x
(B^-1)A x = k x
Which reduces to whether (B^-1)A has at least one eigenvalue. Taking [[0, 1], [-1, 0]], the answer is yes in C but no in R.
so e.g. a solution for real x for n=2 is {identity, [[0, -1], [1, 0]]}, right.
(conceptually, because your resulting system of eqns is: x1 = k x2, x2 = -k x1, right.)
In general, if some matrix isn't invertible then we also get a trivial solution.
If we're working over any algebraically closed field that works for all n.
If A_1 and A_2 are invertible, we can find an eigenvalue k of (A_1^-1)A_2, which gives us a solution.
Consider now the case R^n for odd n>1. The characteristic polynomial of (A_1^-1)A_2 is of degree n, so it has a real root and a real eigenvalue. The case for even n>2 uhh idk.
this shouuuld just be asking what n dimensional subspaces of the space of nxn matrices intersect trivially the hypersurface det(X)=0, for complex matrices it should like probably basically always do that (except for boring dimensions) , so rip, for odd dimensions and for matrices over R, the matrices X and -X will both be in a given n dimensional subspace, and taking a continuous path from X to -X, not crossing 0, since det(X)=-det(-X), eventually you'll end up w a matrix in your subspace w 0 determinant so no odds. Some candidates could be the dimensions 2^n, by starting in the 2x2 case w kaiasky's example and iteratively taking a matrix M in our choise of 2^n matrices and making the bigger matrices [M 0] [0 M] and [0 M][-M 0]. I suspect the fact that this would create a map from R^n x R^n->R^n which restricts to an isomorphism in {x}xR^n and in R^n x{x} is enough through alg topology magic to say the dimension should be 2^n, but i'll check tmrw i desperately need sleep rn
Send this to all your favorite moots and pass the pumpkin round! KEEP THE PUMPKIN TRAIN GOING 🎃🖤🎃🖤🎃
AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAHHHHHHH
Yet another scrunkly,
Gonna make two matching ones for Christmas
glorious, wonderful, showstopping, breathtaking etc etc
*having fantasies of starting a band and slowly falling in love with a random guy i saw on the street i didn't even talk to and thinking about writing the songs for said band and fixing up the logistics of everything involved and imagining a would-be day living with them and thinking about splitting the band as we grow older and dying together* huh maybe i am somewhat gay

Anya is live and ready to show you everything. Watch her strip, dance, and perform exclusive shows just for you. Interact in real-time and make your fantasies come true.
Free to watch • No registration required • HD streaming
Bugs you
AMV of the brown spider from minuscule