(Edit: Sorry this posted too soon - this is a post from Reddit by user AustinQareen, which I am reproducing here because I am tired of this narrative going unchallenged)
On Genocide
I honestly canât understand why anyone would accuse Israel of genocide. The word has a specific meaning: it refers to the deliberate, systematic extermination of an entire people. Nothing Israel has done even if you think its actions are too harsh or morally wrong remotely fits that definition.
If Israel wanted to commit genocide, it has had the military capability to wipe Gaza off the map in a matter of days. Instead, it has repeatedly warned civilians before strikes, dropped leaflets, made phone calls, and even paused operations to let aid in. No country in history has gone to such extremes to limit civilian harm while fighting an enemy embedded among civilians.
Hamas, on the other hand, has made its intentions absolutely clear. Its charter calls for the annihilation of Jews. Its entire strategy is built around ensuring maximum Palestinian civilian death by launching rockets from schools, hospitals, and densely populated neighborhoods. It uses children as human shields, recruits them as soldiers, and steals humanitarian aid meant for civilians.
When people call Israelâs self-defense a âgenocide,â theyâre not just misusing a word theyâre inverting reality. The side openly calling for extermination (Hamas) becomes the victim, and the side trying to stop it (Israel) becomes the perpetrator. Itâs Orwellian.
So yes Iâm confused, because I canât see how anyone could look at this situation, compare intent, methods, and outcomes, and still apply the word genocide to Israel. It feels like a moral hallucination a narrative so emotionally satisfying to some that it overrides facts, logic, and even the definition of the word itself.
Maybe this is the reason why people stick with âgenocideâ: the emotional investment that Gazans are good, and good must prevail, reality be damned. Iâm listening to Abby Martin on the Piers Morgan Show, and she is repeating something I have heard a lot recently arguing that Israel should make concessions to Hamas on a moral basis. How does Hamas have the right to anything? Hamas did what they did on October 7, so it lost the moral right to anything, and then it lost the war it started, so it lost the practical right to anything. Why does Hamas have the right to anything? Her argument seems to be .... Israel bad, Gaza good. Israel must pay.
Many people say âhundreds of scholars and organizations have called it a genocide,â as if that ends the discussion. But if weâre being strict about law, evidence, and logic, thereâs a real problem here â and itâs not about emotion or bias, itâs about method.
The UN Genocide Convention (1948) defines genocide as having three parts:
A protected group (ethnic, national, racial, or religious).
Certain acts such as killing members of the group, causing serious harm, or deliberately inflicting conditions meant to destroy them.
Specific intent â the conscious goal to destroy that group, in whole or in part.
Without proven intent, there is no genocide, no matter how terrible the actions appear.
Groups like Amnesty International, Human Rights Watch, and figures like Norman Finkelstein have labeled Israelâs actions in Gaza as genocide. They cite civilian casualties, destruction, and wartime statements by Israeli officials. Those statements are treated as proof of genocidal intent. But thatâs a major legal mistake.
The UNâs own court precedents â from the ICTY, ICTR, and ICJ â are clear that statements made during wartime cannot, by themselves, prove genocidal intent unless they are directly tied to concrete orders or policy actions. People say extreme, even horrible, things under the stress of war. Courts recognize this. Tribunals require clear evidence of a deliberate plan or pattern aimed at destroying a group, not just rhetoric or collateral damage.
It is also normal for acts that could be considered âgenocidalâ in isolation â killing, destruction, suffering to occur during wartime. Almost every war involves civilian deaths, property destruction, and atrocities of some kind. The Gaza war, tragic as it is, is not unique in that regard. What matters legally is intent to destroy a group as such, which is absent here. Israelâs stated and demonstrated goal is to defeat Hamas, not Palestinians.
This is where the reasoning collapses. Experts who should know better are treating emotion and destruction as if they were evidence of intent. They are counting wartime anger as policy. They are mistaking tragedy for genocide.
Under strict legal interpretation: â The protected group element is met (Palestinians in Gaza). â Some acts (killing, harm, destruction) are present. â But the intent â the defining feature of genocide â is absent.
You can argue that Israelâs response is excessive or cruel, but that is not genocide. If it were, every modern war with civilian deaths would also qualify, making the term meaningless.
Yet Amnesty, Human Rights Watch, and Finkelstein continue to use the word âgenocideâ anyway. They know the legal definition. They know the UN rulings that warn against treating wartime speech as intent. And still, they do it.
Why?
Is it because âgenocideâ has become a moral weapon rather than a legal term? Because outrage now carries more weight than precision? Because they believe moral theater is more powerful than strict truth? Is it Jew-hatred? Or is it the current fashion of post-colonial studies, with its simplistic oppressor/oppressed lens reducing a complex and long history into a comic-book-binary of good versus evil?
Whatever the reason, it leaves us in a strange place. The very people who claim to defend international law are bending it. The ones demanding accountability are ignoring the standards that define accountability.
If the Genocide Convention is applied strictly, calling Israelâs actions genocide simply does not fit. Thatâs not denial of suffering itâs defense of logic, law, and historical nuance.
So hereâs my honest question to anyone reading this: Why do people especially experts and organizations that know the legal standards keep calling this genocide when it clearly does not meet the definition, and when the acts themselves, while tragic, are normal for wartime?











