Was the Word āGodā or āa godā in John 1.1?
By Bible Researcher Eli Kittim š
John 1.1 (SBLGNT):
į¼Ī½ į¼ĻĻῠἦν į½ Ī»ĻγοĻ, καὶ į½ Ī»ĻĪ³ĪæĻ į¼¦Ī½ ĻĻį½øĻ
Ļὸν θεĻν, καὶ ĪøĪµį½øĻ į¼¦Ī½ į½ Ī»ĻγοĻ.
John 1.1, which is a throwback to Genesis 1.1, aims to define the primordial relationship of āthe Wordā (i.e. Christ) to God. But certain skeptics have challenged the idea that the fullness of the godhead was in Christ (Col. 2.9), who is said to be āthe Wordā (i.e. į½ Ī»ĻγοĻ). Specifically, Jehovah's Witnesses have raised the argument of āa godā in John 1.1, implying that Christ is a lesser and inferior god that was created. Letās explore that assertion. John 1.1 is traditionally broken up into three phrases that are separated by commas:
1st phrase: į¼Ī½ į¼ĻĻῠἦν į½ Ī»ĻγοĻ,
2nd phrase: καὶ į½ Ī»ĻĪ³ĪæĻ į¼¦Ī½ ĻĻį½øĻ
Ļὸν θεĻν,
3rd phrase: καὶ ĪøĪµį½øĻ į¼¦Ī½ į½ Ī»ĻγοĻ.
First, to suppose that John is talking about many gods, or more than one god, is a theological speculation and a grammatical imposition that is going beyond what is written in the text or what we know about the theology of the Gospel of John.
Second, John *did* mention the definite article ĻĻν in the second phrase, and so he is not obligated to repeat it in the third phrase, as that would be redundant and tautological.
Third, another reason why the third phrase of John 1.1 doesnāt require the definite article (before the term θεĻĻ) is because it was already *used* in the second phrase, and therefore it necessarily *carries over.* For example, if I were to write, āI have a pretty good temper, and a very amiable disposition,ā I would not be required to repeat the first part of the phrase. In other words, I wouldnāt be required grammatically to write āI have a pretty good temper, and [I have] a very amiable disposition.ā The āI haveā is *carried over* and doesnāt need to be repeated. It would be considered redundant. Similarly, in addressing ĻĻν ĪεĻν with a definite article in the second phrase, John doesnāt have to repeat ĻĻν ĪεĻν in the third phrase, since it is *carried over.* Hereās another example. I could write āGod is one being, not two beings.ā But thatās redundant. Now, if I were to rewrite the same sentence correctly and say āGod is one being, not two,ā would anyone argue that the term ātwoā may not necessarily refer to the concept of being because the word ābeingā is not mentioned? Thatās the same kind of argument that skeptics are raising here in John 1.1.
Since John has already established (as a monotheist) that heās talking about one (and-only-one) particular God (namely, ĻĻν ĪεĻν) in the second phrase, then this syntactical construction must necessarily *carry over* into the third phrase. In other words, the term ĪεĻĻ in the third phrase grammatically refers back to āthe Godā (ĻĻν ĪεĻν) mentioned in the second phrase. Therefore, when John writes āĻὸν θεĻνā (in the second phrase), āκαὶ ĪøĪµį½øĻ į¼¦Ī½ į½ Ī»ĻγοĻā (in the third phrase), the āGodā of the third phrase is a direct reference to āthe Godā of the second phrase. Itās obviously the same āGodā in both phrases, not a different one. And given that God is one being, not two, which other god could John be possibly referring to?
In Greek, the third phrase in John 1.1 is actually read in two different ways, not only as āthe Word was God,ā but also as āGod was the Word.ā In the third phrase, thereās no ontological distinction between God and the Wordāāafter all, they share one being: āI and the Father are oneā (Jn 10.30)āābecause John already made the distinction (of persons) in the second phrase.
Thus, the āa godā argument of the Jehovahās Witnessesāāwhich is raised in āThe New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures (NWT)āāis totally bogus and unwarranted both grammatically and theologically!















